Regarding my book, let’s recall my previous answer: In my book “we consider a flat-fading time-invariant channel with a coherence block, thus the channel is described by an impulse response h*delta(t) in the time domain and h in the frequency domain, where delta(t) is the Dirac delta function. So h is the coefficient that describes the channel.” Hence, if h is iid Rayleigh fading, this occur in both the time and frequency domain.

]]>==> In your book, the channel h ~ CN(0,1) which is Rayleigh fading and in my understanding, Rayleigh fading is in time domain, but when we change to frequency domain, what happens? ]]>

In OFDM, the coherence block can be approximately viewed as spanning a certain number of subcarriers in the frequency domain and OFDM symbols in the time domain. This is what Marzetta describes in his book.

If you want to consider a more detailed model of OFDM, you will have to leave the block fading model. The following two papers show how to deal with channel variations in the frequency domain and in the time domain:

http://liu.diva-portal.org/smash/get/diva2:1048138/FULLTEXT01.pdf

https://liu.diva-portal.org/smash/get/diva2:1083742/FULLTEXT02.pdf

There are many other relevant papers on OFDM in Massive MIMO which you can find in the reference lists of the two papers above.

]]>+ In my understanding, the channel response in the book is in time domain, we assume flat fading and the common model is Rayleigh fading model.

+ But if we use OFDM, how can we model the channel? In the paper “Non cooperative cellular wireless with unlimited numbers of base station antennas”-M. Marzetta, the author talked about OFDM, they consider at one sub-carrier, and the model is still the same with Rayleigh fading model (just channel response multiply with signal) ==> Is the channel now in the frequency domain? Because I think we use convolution instead of multiply channel response with signal in frequency-selective fading. ]]>